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350-401 Dumps

350-401 Real Exam Dumps Questions and answers 41-50

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Question No.41

Refer to this output. What is the logging severity level?

R1#Feb 14 37:15:12:429: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN Line protocol on interface GigabitEthernet0/1. Change state to up

  1. Notification

  2. Alert

  3. Critical

  4. Emergency

Correct Answer: A

Question No.42

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

  1. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern #39;UP#39;

    action 1.0 gets #39;logging directly to console#39;

  2. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern #39;UP#39;

    action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg #39;log directly to console#39;

  3. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern #39;UP#39;

    action 1.0 puts #39;logging directly to console#39;

  4. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern #39;UP#39;

action 1.0 string #39;logging directly to console#39;

Correct Answer: B

Question No.43

What does this EEM applet event accomplish?

quot;event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.1.5.1.2.4.2.9 get-type next entry-op g entry-val 75 poll-interval 5quot;

  1. It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cycles.

  2. It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75% for live polling cycles.

  3. It presents a SNMP variable that can be interrogated.

  4. Upon the value reaching 75%, a SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server.

Correct Answer: B

Question No.44

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

  1. EIRP

  2. noise floor

  3. antenna gain

  4. RSSI

  5. transmit power

Correct Answer: BD

Question No.45

Refer to the exhibit. Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

image

  1. 1

  2. 7

  3. 13

  4. 15

Correct Answer: D

Question No.46

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

  1. three parts separated by dots: header payload, and signature

  2. header and payload

  3. three parts separated by dots: version header and signature

  4. payload and signature

Correct Answer: A

Question No.47

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?

  1. Auto

  2. Active

  3. On

  4. Passive

Correct Answer: C

Question No.48

Which method does the enable secret password option use to encrypt device passwords?

  1. AES

  2. CHAP

  3. PAP

  4. MD5

Correct Answer: D

Question No.49

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?

image

  1. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.

  2. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.

  3. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.

  4. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.

Correct Answer: C

Question No.50

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions is changed from 1 to 2?

  1. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

  2. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.

  3. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

  4. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Correct Answer: C

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350-401 Real Exam Dumps Questions and answers 51-60

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Question No.51

If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?

  1. router with the highest priority

  2. router with the highest loopback address

  3. router with the lowest loopback address

  4. router with the lowest priority

Correct Answer: A

Question No.52

Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?

  1. vBond

  2. vEdge

  3. vSmart

  4. vManage

Correct Answer: D

Question No.53

Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?

A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1

B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0

C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254

D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254

Correct Answer: C

Question No.54

Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of 22-433, excluding port 80?

  1. Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tcp any any gt 21 it 444

  2. Permit tcp any any ne 80

  3. Permit tcp any any range 22 443 Deny tcp any any eq 80

  4. Deny tcp any any ne 80

Permit tcp any any range 22 443

Correct Answer: A

Question No.55

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right.

image

Correct Answer:

image

Question No.56

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

  1. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

  2. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

  3. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

  4. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Correct Answer: B

Question No.57

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

image

image

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: B

Question No.58

Which statement about VXLAN is true?

  1. VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data cento network

  2. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits. which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network.

  3. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries.

  4. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention.

Correct Answer: C

Question No.59

Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type 2 hypervisor?

  1. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS.

  2. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it.

  3. Type 1 hypervisor relics on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources.

  4. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques.

Correct Answer: A

Question No.60

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two.)

  1. Increased security

  2. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements

  3. reduced IP and MAC address requirements

  4. speedy deployment

  5. smaller Layer 2 domain

Correct Answer: BD

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350-401 Real Exam Dumps Questions and answers 11-20

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Question No.11

A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPV6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow

collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?

  1. 1

  2. 2

  3. 4

  4. 8

Correct Answer: B

Question No.12

Which two steps are required for a complete Cisco DNA Center upgrade? (Choose two.)

  1. golden image selection

  2. automation backup

  3. proxy configuration

  4. application updates

  5. system update

Correct Answer: DE

Question No.13

Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?

  1. ETR

  2. MS

  3. ITR

  4. MR

Correct Answer: A

Question No.14

Which feature is supported by ElGRP but is not supported by OSPF?

  1. route summarization

  2. equal-cost load balancing

  3. unequal-cost load balancing

  4. route filtering

Correct Answer: C

Question No.15

On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?

  1. LISP

  2. IS-IS

  3. Cisco TrustSec

  4. VXLAN

Correct Answer: D

Question No.16

Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite?

  1. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities.

  2. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table.

  3. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses.

  4. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table.

Correct Answer: B

Question No.17

Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?

  1. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks

  2. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic

  3. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay

  4. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.

Correct Answer: A

Question No.18

Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true?

  1. The access point is part of the fabric underlay.

  2. The WLC is part of the fabric underaly.

  3. The access point is part the fabirc overlay.

  4. The wireless client is part of the fabirc overlay.

Correct Answer: C

Question No.19

What are two common sources of interference for WI-FI networks? (Choose two.)

  1. radar

  2. LED lights

  3. rogue AP

  4. conventional oven

  5. fire alarm

    Correct Answer: AC

    Question No.20

    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102 0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

    image

    A.

    192.168.101.18

    B.

    192.168.101.6

    C.

    192.168.101.10

    D.

    192.168.101.14

    Correct Answer: A

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350-401 Real Exam Dumps Questions and answers 21-30

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Question No.21

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

  1. MTU

  2. Window size

  3. MRU

  4. D.MSS

Correct Answer: D

Question No.22

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

image

  1. VRF VPN_B

  2. Default VRF

  3. Management VRF

  4. VRF VPN_A

Correct Answer: D

Question No.23

Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client

associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients gt; Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?

image

  1. Indirect

  2. Layer 3 intercontroller

  3. Layer 2 intercontroller

  4. Intracontroller

Correct Answer: B

Question No.24

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

  1. ICMP echo

  2. UDP jitter

  3. CMP jitter

  4. TCP connect

Correct Answer: D

Question No.25

Refer to the exhibit. Which HTTP JSON response does the python code output give?

image

  1. NameError: name #39;json#39; is not defined

  2. KeyError #39;kickstart_ver_str#39; C. 7.61

D. 7.0(3)I7(4)

Correct Answer: B

Question No.26

What is a benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?

  1. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system.

  2. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs.

  3. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient.

  4. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.

Correct Answer: D

Question No.27

Which PAgP mode combination prevents an Etherchannel from forming?

  1. auto/auto

  2. desirable/desirable

  3. auto/desirable

  4. desirable

Correct Answer: A

Question No.28

Which protocol does REST API rely on to secure the communication channel?

  1. TCP

  2. HTTPS

  3. SSH

  4. HTTP

Correct Answer: B

Question No.29

Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure#39;?

  1. VSPAN

  2. IPSPAN

  3. RSPAN

  4. ERSPAN

Correct Answer: D

Question No.30

Refer to the exhibit. Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning- tree port-priority 32 command on GO/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 to resolve the issue?

image

  1. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1.

  2. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1.

  3. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2.

  4. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2.

Correct Answer: A

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350-401 Real Exam Dumps Questions and answers 31-40

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Question No.31

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?

  1. ISE server

  2. local WLC

  3. RADIUS server

  4. anchor WLC

Correct Answer: B

Question No.32

Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true?

  1. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device.

  2. It must have an SSH server running.

  3. It must support ad hoc commands.

  4. It must have an Ansible Tower installed.

Correct Answer: A

Question No.33

Which JSON syntax is valid?

image

  1. Option A

  2. Option B

  3. Option C

  4. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Question No.34

Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on types 1 hypervisors?

  1. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes.

  2. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical

    server

  3. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server.

  4. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.

Correct Answer: A

Question No.35

image

Refer to the exhibit. SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch Which command meets this requirement?

A.

B.

C.

image

D.

Correct Answer: D

Question No.36

What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment?

  1. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased

  2. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other

  3. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises

  4. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware

Correct Answer: B

Question No.37

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the description from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right.

image

Correct Answer:

image

Question No.38

What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses?

  1. weight. AS path, local preference. MED

  2. weight, local preference AS path, MED

  3. local preference weight AS path, MED

  4. local preference, weight MED, AS path

Correct Answer: B

Question No.39

Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.)

  1. IP prefix list-based

  2. IPsec

  3. TACACS-based authentication

  4. IP access list-based

  5. Encrypted authentication

Correct Answer: DE

Question No.40

What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution?

  1. provides connectivity to external networks

  2. acts as a DNS server

  3. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services

  4. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric

Correct Answer: C

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350-401 Real Exam Dumps Questions and answers 1-10

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Question No.1

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)

  1. TCP window size

  2. TCP MSS

  3. IP MTU

  4. DF bit clear

  5. MTU ignore

Correct Answer: BC

Question No.2

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

image

image

A.

B.

C.

image

D.

Correct Answer: A

Question No.3

Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?

  1. A.CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER local

  2. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

  3. CISCO-CONTROLLER local

  4. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER local

Correct Answer: D

Question No.4

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

  1. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.

  2. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.

  3. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.

  4. Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

Correct Answer: D

Question No.5

In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified?

  1. HTTP method

  2. URI

  3. header

  4. body

Correct Answer: D

Question No.6

Which two methods are used by an AP that is typing to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

  1. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbour

  2. broadcasting on the local subnet

  3. DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain

  4. DHCP Option 43

  5. querying other APs

Correct Answer: CD

Question No.7

Which two protocols are used with YANG data models? (Choose two.)

  1. HTTPS

  2. SSH

  3. RESTCONF

  4. TLS

  5. NFTCONF

Correct Answer: CE

Question No.8

Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency?

image

  1. Full on both routers

  2. not established

  3. 2WAY/DROTHER on both routers

  4. FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2

Correct Answer: B

Question No.9

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.

image

The first method for authentication is TACACS

image

If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials Which configuration accomplishes this task?

image

  1. Option A

  2. Option B

  3. Option C

  4. Option D

Correct Answer: C

Question No.10

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)

  1. HEAD

  2. REMOVE

  3. PULL

  4. PATCH

  5. ADD

  6. PUSH

Correct Answer: AD

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